Tổng hợp đề thi IELTS Listening Mock Test

 SECTION 1

Questions 1-6
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD for each answer.

Car Tours in the USA

Example
Name: Andrea Brown

Address: 24 1 ________ Road
Postcode: BH5 2OP
Phone: (mobile) 077 8664 3091
Heard about company from: 2 ________

Possible self-drive tours
Trip One:
• Los Angeles: customer wants to visit some 3 ________ parks with her children
• Yosemite Park: customer wants to stay in a lodge, not a 4 ________
Trip Two:
• Customer wants to see the 5 ________ on the way to Cambria
• At Santa Monica: not interested in shopping
• At San Diego, wants to spend time on the 6 ________

Questions 7–10
Complete the table below.
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

SECTION 2

Questions 11–12

Choose TWO letters A–E.

Which TWO facilities at the leisure club have recently been improved?

A the gym

B the tracks

C the indoor pool

D the outdoor pool

E the sports training for children

Questions 13–20

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Joining the leisure club

Personal Assessment

• New members should describe any 13 ________ .
• The 14 ________ will be explained to you before you use the equipment.
• You will be given a six-week 15 ________ .

Types of membership

• There is a compulsory £90 16 ________ fee for members.
• Gold members are given 17 ________ to all the LP clubs.
• Premier members are given priority during 18 ________ hours.
• Premier members can bring some 19 ________ every month.
• Members should always take their 20 ________ with them.

SECTION 3

Questions 21–25

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

Global Design Competition

21 Students entering the design competition have to

A produce an energy-efficient design.

B adapt an existing energy-saving appliance.

C develop a new use for current technology.

22 John chose a dishwasher because he wanted to make dishwashers

A more appealing.

B more common.

C more economical.

23 The stone in John’s ‘Rockpool’ design is used

A for decoration.

B to switch it on.

C to stop water escaping.

24 In the holding chamber, the carbon dioxide

A changes back to a gas.

B dries the dishes.

C is allowed to cool.

25 At the end of the cleaning process, the carbon dioxide

A is released into the air.

B is disposed of with the waste.

C is collected ready to be re-used.

Questions 26–30

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer

• John needs help preparing for his 26 ________ .
• The professor advises John to make a 27 ________ of his design.
• John’s main problem is getting good quality 28 ________ .
• The professor suggests John apply for a 29 ________ .
• The professor will check the 30 ________ information in John’s written report.

SECTION 4

Questions 31–40

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

THE SPIRIT BEAR

General facts

• It is a white bear belonging to the black bear family.
• Its colour comes from an uncommon 31 ________.
• Local people believe that it has unusual 32 ________.
• They protect the bear from 33 ________.

Habitat

• The bear’s relationship with the forest is complex.
• Tree roots stop 34 ________ along salmon streams.
• The bears’ feeding habits provide nutrients for forest vegetation.
• It is currently found on a small number of 35 ________.

Threats

• Habitat is being lost due to deforestation and construction of 36 ________ by logging companies.
• Unrestricted 37 ________ is affecting the salmon supply.
• The bears’ existence is also threatened by their low rate of 38 ________

Going forward

• Interested parties are working together.
• Logging companies must improve their 39________ of logging.
• Maintenance and 40________ of the spirit bears’ territory is needed.

SECTION 1

Questions 1-5

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

ACCOMMODATION REQUEST FORM

Full name: (1) ________ Lee

Age: (2) ________

Present Address: International House

Room: (3) ________

Reasons for applying for homestay:

– to know about local culture

– to (4) ________

Contact number: 8141 9680 (home), (5)________ (mobile)

Questions 6-10

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

ACCOMMODATION REQUIREMENTS

▪️ a nice landlady

▪️ own (6) ________

▪️ no young children

▪️ near to (7) ________

▪️ The (8)________ will be £140, including (9)________ bill.

Accommodation required date: (10)________

SECTION 2

Questions 11-15

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Guide for Peak District

Peak District’s location: five miles from Sheffield  11 _____________

Main attractions:

Bakewell Town is known for local food: 12 _____________

Chatsworth House has formal gardens and 13 _____________

The heart of Peak District is the Peak District 14 _____________

The most famous cavern in Castleton is called 15 _____________

Questions 16–20

Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

16 ______ must be accompanied by an adult on walking and cycling.
Tourists can pick 17 ______ in some specialist shops.
Chatsworth’s art collection has 18 ______ years’ history.
Eyam village is also called 19 ______.
Eyam Hall has 20 ______ workshops.

SECTION 3

Questions 21–23

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

21 Harper’s paper is about _____________
A energy crisis.
B environment protection.
C computer technology.

22 The research method that the professor recommends is
A  interview.
B  questionnaire.
C  presentation.

23 Harper is worried about ______________
A essay deadline.
B questionnaire data.
C course stress.

Questions 24–26

Choose the correct letter.

A = if professor says REMAIN
B = if professor says REWRITE
C = if professor says REMOVE

What suggestions does professor make?
24 ______ purpose
25 ______ structure
26 ______ personal experiences

Questions 27–30

Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

ESSAY REQUIREMENT

• To hand in essay by 27 ______
• To print essay by 28 ______
• Before handing in: to do 29 ______ (e.g. grammar and spelling)
• to check proper 30 ______

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40

Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

BRITISH MEDIA

▪️ Newspapers began to appear in the 18th-19th century.

▪️ (31)_________ is British oldest daily newspaper.

▪️ The legal rule of advertisement that all British media must follow is (32)_________

▪️ There are over (33)_________ different newspapers in Britain.

▪️ The press that publishes serious articles is (34)_________

▪️ The most leftwing newspaper is (35)_________

▪️ A feature of the tabloid press is a girl picture on (36)_________

▪️ The oldest soap shop was located in the northern city of (37)_________ in England.

▪️ British new casts get good reputation for the (38)_________ of reporting.

▪️ British viewers usually use the time of (39)_________ to make a drink.

▪️ Audience have to buy a (40)_________

SECTION 1

Questions 1–3

Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Questions 4 and 5
Complete the flowchart below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Beetles’ effect on sugar cane

Beetle lay eggs
↓
Eggs become grubs
↓
Grubs eat the (4)________
↓
Sugar cane (5)________

Questions 6–10
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

6. The cane toad originated in
   A Central America
   B Hawaii
   C Australia
7. In Australia, the toads
   A grew extremely large
   B multiplied in number
   C ate the cane beetles
8. The farmers’ plan failed because
   A there were too many beetles
   B their own research was faulty
   C they believed the reports they read
9. The sugar cane industry
   A thrives today
   B has died out in some areas
   C survives alongside the beetle
10. The second lesson to be learned from this story is that
    A the environment is constantly at risk
    B first hand research is not always necessary
    C caution is necessary when dealing with nature

SECTION 2

Questions 11–20
Complete the time table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Park Arts Center

SECTION 3

Questions 21–25

What opinion is expressed about each dissertation?

Choose your answers from the list below and write the letters A–I next to questions 21–25.

List of opinions:
A. it has an inadequate index
B. it contains unusual illustrations
C. it is too detailed in places
D. it presents clear arguments
E. it contains diagrams which are not clear
F. it omits important historical facts
G. it is poorly translated
H. it contains useful background information
I. it is not suitable for new students

21 Twentieth Century Architecture ________

22 Modern Construction ________

23 Steel, Glass and Concrete ________

24 The Space We Make ________

25 Change and Tradition ________

Questions 26–30
Complete the flow chart below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Ben’s Programme

• Step 1: Look at drawings of (26) ___________
• Step 2: Get images of (27) ___________ from internet
• Step 3: Find books about (28) ___________ of the period
• Step 4: Show (29) ___________ to Dr. Forbes
• Step 5: Ask Dr. Gray for more (30) ___________

SECTION 4

Questions 31–40
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

31 Rival cameras were claimed to ________ less than the Cinematographe.

32 In Russia, on one occasion, the Cinematographe was suspected of being a ________.

33 Early filming in Russia led to the creation of a new approach to ________.

34 One problem for historians is not knowing whether early equipment ________ as it was claimed.

35 Marey encountered difficulties achieving the ________ of strips of photographic paper.

36 The ________ of the comic strip influenced the way films were planned.

37 Documentaries used ________ shots before fiction films did.

38 The popularity of ________ films led to increased numbers of shots.

39 When filming ________, the screen might be divided.

40 As films became more complex ________ became an important part of film-making.

SECTION 1

Questions 1–10
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Job Inquiry
Type of job required: part-time

SECTION 2

Questions 11–14
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

11. The host families will
    A earn a big money
    B receive no pay
    C receive stable pay
12. What is the guest expected to overcome when suffering from culture shock?
    A loneliness
    B difficulty to make friends
    C language barriers
13. What can the guests do if they want to become familiar with host families?
    A talk about personal interests
    B clean their rooms
    C cook together
14. What is likely to happen to the guests in the long run?
    A they will enhance cultural understanding
    B they will gain overseas experience
    C they will know more people from different countries

Questions 15–20
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

How to apply for a homestay

• Visit the website and contact the advisor
  
• Keep in touch with the (15) ________
  
• Provide two photos: one for the host family and other for (16) ________
  
• Send in some documents to confirm your (17) ________
  
• Receive (18) ________ within 7 working days
  
• Have an (19) ________ in London
  
• Pay the extra fee for a fast track service
  
• Receive a written (20) ________

SECTION 3

Questions 21–26
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

21. What kind of research method does the professor recommend?
    A interview
    B observation
    C questionnaire
22. What is the project based on?
    A a study they did before in Australia
    B a similar angle someone has done before
    C an Australian study
23. What does the professor advise Douglas to do about the formation of the focus groups?
    A strengthen the group in size
    B reduce the number of children in each group
    C build more than 3 groups
24. To do the project best, the professor suggests the students
    A interview various people or sectors
    B not be too ambitious
    C work hard enough
25. To gather data, the professor asks Jane
    A to replace other people’s advice
    B to simplify the textbook
    C to practice using the data table
26. The reason why Douglas hasn’t read enough reference books is that
    A he doesn’t have enough time
    B he thinks there are too many books to read
    C he hasn’t spent time in the library

Questions 27–30
What do the students decide about the following parts of the project?
Write the correct letter A, B or C next to questions 27–30.

A Jane will do
B Douglas will do
C They will do together

27________

28________

29________

30________

SECTION 4

Questions 31–36
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

GRAPHICAL SYMBOL
‘Graphical symbol’

• includes the logographs in Egyptian hieroglyphic writing and ancient Chinese pictograms
  
• found in Africa, the Americas, and Oceania
  
• still has something to do with (31) ________ use today
  

Ancient graphic writing systems

• Researchers obtain a wide range of (32) ________ about past civilisations.
  
• Rosetta Stone was found in 1799 when members of Napoleon’s expedition got to Egypt.
  
• Frenchman Jean-François Champollion determined the phonetic values of the symbols in 1822.
  
• In those symbols, (33) ________ are used to depict various meanings.
  

Camera obscura

• (34) ________ helps people understand history better.
• Some charities will (35) ________ many endangered species.
• A camera was tied to one (36) ________ of a bird.

Questions 37–40
Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

37 More ________ will be included in the future with the development of photography.

38 Companies would like to invest a lot to advertise in ________.

39 Designing appealing ________ is used as a way of effective branding.

40 Graphic writing systems are of great importance in the subject of ________.

SECTION 1

Questions 1–4
Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Model – Ford Fiesta

Registration: 3R1 (1) ________
Current mileage: (2) ________ miles
Estimated yearly mileage: 6,000 a year
Overnight parking: (3) ________
Cover: third party (4) ________
No claim bonus: 6 years

Questions 5–7
Choose THREE letters A–G.

Which additional cover does Liam want?

A legal
B 14 day cover courtesy car
C driver injury
D protected no claim bonus
E breakdown
F lost car key
G windscreen

Questions 8–10
Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Name: Liam Byrd
Address: 35 Bottiville Crescent, Birmingham
Postcode: (8) ________
Date of birth: 11/11/1969
Telephone: 0121 677 9887
Payment by: (9) ________
Card number: **** 1551

Security number: ***
How did the customer hear about Hartline? (10) ________

SECTION 2

Questions 11–14
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

11 Every year more than ________ people try to climb Mont Blanc.

12 Approximately ________ reach the top every day in the summer months.

13 In July 2007 there were 30 fatalities, chiefly due to ________.

14 One danger is ________ caused by other climbers.

Questions 15–17
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

15 How did Katherine do her most recent climb?
A in a group
B with a guide
C on her own
16 Why did Katherine find her first climb on Mont Blanc difficult?
A because of poor weather conditions
B because of the time she was climbing
C because the route was crowded
17 What did Katherine do on her second climb that made it easier?
A she spent a few days in Charnonix beforehand
B she did the climb over two days
C she climbed smaller peaks for training

SECTION 3

Questions 18–20
Choose THREE letters A–F.

What has experience taught Katherine about climbing Mont Blanc?

A be in good physical condition
B have the right climbing equipment
C wear several layers of clothing
D protect yourself from the sun
E climb with others
F acclimatize yourself to the altitude first

Questions 21–23
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

21 When do Elaine and Adam decide to meet for revision? ________

22 What item does Adam think will help them work independently on revision? ________

23 How does Elaine suggest they spend their revision time between meetings? ________

Questions 24–28
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

24 It’s best to avoid notes ________.

25 Relate ________ to key theories and arguments.

26 Using diagrams can help keep a lot of information ________.

27 Bullet points can enable you to highlight ________.

28 Keep a record of your sources, such as the ________.

Questions 29 and 30
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

29. In future revision sessions Adam suggests using past papers
    A to try to predict future exam questions
    B to test each other
    C to discuss the questions
30. Elaine suggests
    A adding essay practice to the timetable
    B doing essays under exam conditions
    C asking a tutor to mark their essays

SECTION 4

Questions 31–33
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

31. According to the text, shared space
    A is very popular in the Netherlands
    B reduces the number of cars in an area
    C improves the dynamic between drivers and pedestrians
32. Shared space design results in
    A fewer road signs
    B stronger boundaries between pedestrians and motorists
    C increased local employment
33. Supporters of shared space argue that it
    A leads to new businesses opening
    B makes people happier to shop in the area
    C encourages wildlife

Questions 34–37
Match the groups A–D with their concerns about shared space 34–37.

 A Motorists
B Blind people
C Cyclists
D Supporters of shared space

34 Insufficient experience amongst planners ________

35 A lack of important signage ________

36 Intimidation by motorists ________

37 The loss of familiar street furniture ________

Questions 38 and 39
Choose TWO letters A–D.

People will be able to answer the questions

A on the internet
B at the local library
C at the proposed site
D at home

Question 40
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

Questions must be designed so that they
A do not reflect the views of the campaign group
B do not require an understanding of shared space
C are easy to answer

SECTION 1

Questions 1–10
Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

SECTION 2

Questions 11–13
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

Traffic Changes in Granford

11. Why are changes needed to traffic systems in Granford?
    ☐ A The number of traffic accidents has risen.
    ☐ B The amount of traffic on the roads has increased.
    ☐ C The types of vehicles on the roads have changed.
12. In a survey, local residents particularly complained about
    ☐ A dangerous driving by parents.
    ☐ B pollution from trucks and lorries.
    ☐ C inconvenience from parked cars.
13. According to the speaker, one problem with the new regulations will be
    ☐ A raising money to pay for them.
    ☐ B finding a way to make people follow them.
    ☐ C getting the support of the police.

Questions 14–20
Label the map below. Write the correct letter A–I next to questions 14–20.

Proposed traffic changes in Granford

14 New traffic lights ________

15 Pedestrian crossing ________

16 Parking allowed ________

17 New ‘no parking’ sign ________

18 New disabled parking spaces ________

19 One-way street ________

20 Cycle lane ________

SECTION 3

Questions 21–25
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

21. Why is Jack interested in investigating seed germination?
    A He may do a module on a related topic later on
    B He wants to have a career in plant science
    C He is thinking of choosing this topic for his dissertation
22. Jack and Emma agree the main advantage of their present experiment is that it can be
    A described very easily
    B carried out inside the laboratory
    C completed in the time available
23. What do they decide to check with their tutor?
    A whether their aim is appropriate
    B whether anyone else has chosen this topic
    C whether the assignment contributes to their final grade
24. They agree that Grave’s book on seed germination is disappointing because
    A it fails to cover recent advances in seed science
    B the content is irrelevant for them
    C its focus is very theoretical
25. What does Jack say about the article on seed germination by Lee Hall?
    A the diagrams of plant development are useful
    B the analysis of seed germination statistics is thorough
    C the findings on seed germination after fires are surprising

Questions 26–30

Complete the flow chart below. Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter A–H next to questions 26–30.

Stages in the experiment

• Select seeds of different (26) __________ and sizes
  
• Measure and record the (27) __________ and size of each one
  
• Decide on the (28) __________ to be used
  
• Use a different (29) __________ for each seed and label it
  
• After about 3 weeks, record the plant’s (30) __________
  
• Investigate the findings

SECTION 4

Questions 31–40
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Effects of urban environment on animals

Introduction
Recent urban developments represent massive environmental changes. It was previously thought that only a few animals were suitable for city life e.g.

• The (31) ________ because of its general adaptabilit
• The pigeon – because walls of city buildings are similar to (32) ________

In fact, many urban animals are adapting with unusual (33) ________

Recent research

• Emilie Snell-Rood studied urbanized mammal specimens from museums in Minnesota
  • She found the size of their (34) ________ had increased
  • She suggests this may be due to the need to locate new sources of (35) ________ and to deal with new dangers
• Catarina Miranda focused on the (36) ________ of urban and rural blackbirds
  • She found urban birds were often braver but were afraid of situations that were (37) ________
• Jonathan Atwell studies how animals respond to urban environments
• He found that some animals respond to (38) __________ by producing lower levels of hormones.
• Sarah Partan’s team found urban squirrels use their (39) __________ to help them communicate.

Long-term possibilities
Species of animals may develop which are unique to cities. However, some changes may not be (40) __________.

SECTION 1

Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

South city cycling club
Name of club secretary: Jim Hunter

Membership

• Full membership costs $260; this covers cycling and (1) ________ all over Australia
  
• Recreational membership costs $108
  
• Cost of membership includes the club fee and (2) ________
  
• The club kit is made by a company called (3) ________
  

Training rides

• Chance to improve cycling skills and fitness
  
• Level B: speed about (4) ________ kph
  
• Weekly sessions
  
  
  • Tuesdays at 5.30 am, meet at the (5) ________
    
  • Thursdays at 5.30 am, meet at the entrance to the (6) ________
    

Further information

• Rides are about an hour and half
  
• Members often have (7) ________ together afterwards
  
• There is not always a (8) ________ with the group on these rides
  
• Check and print the (9) ________ on the website beforehand
  
• Bikes must have (10) ________

SECTION 2

Questions 11-16
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

Information on company volunteering projects

11. How much time for volunteering does the company allow per employee?
    A two hours per week
    B one day per month
    C 8 hours per year
12. In feedback almost all employees said that volunteering improved their
    A chances of promotion
    B job satisfaction
    C relationships with colleagues
13. Last year some staff helped unemployed people with their
    A literacy skills
    B job applications
    C communication skills
14. This year the company will start a new volunteering project with a local
    A school
    B park
    C charity
15. Where will the Digital Inclusion Day be held?
    A at the company’s training facility
    B at a college
    C in a community centre
16. What should staff do if they want to take part in the Digital Inclusion Day?
    A fill in a form
    B attend a training workshop
    C get permission from their managers

Questions 17 and 18
Choose TWO letters A-E.

Which TWO things are mentioned about the participants on the last Digital Inclusion Day?

A they were all over 70
B they never used their computer
C their phones were mostly old fashioned
D they only used their phones for making calls
E they initially showed little interest

Questions 19 and 20
Choose TWO letters A-E.

What TWO activities on the last Digital Inclusion Day did participants describe as useful?

A learning to use tablets
B communicating with family
C shopping online
D playing online games
E sending emails

SECTION 3

Questions 21-25
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

Planning a presentation on nanotechnology

21. Russ says that his difficulty in planning the presentation is due to
    A his lack of knowledge about the topic.
    B his uncertainty about what he should try to achieve.
    C the short time that he has for preparation.
22. Russ and his tutor agree that his approach in the presentation will be
    A to concentrate on how nanotechnology is used in one field.
    B to follow the chronological development of nanotechnology.
    C to show the range of applications of nanotechnology.
23. In connection with slides, the tutor advises Russ to
    A talk about things that he can find slides to illustrate.
    B look for slides to illustrate the points he makes.
    C consider omitting slides altogether.
24. They both agree that the best way for Russ to start his presentation is
    A to encourage the audience to talk.
    B to explain what Russ intends to do.
    C to provide an example.
25. What does the tutor advise Russ to do next while preparing his presentation?
    A summarise the main point he wants to make
    B read the notes he has already made
    C list the topics he wants to cover

Questions 26-30
What comments do the speakers make about each of the following aspects of Russ’s previous presentation?

Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter A–G next to questions 26-30.

Comments
A. lacked a conclusion
B. useful in the future
C. not enough
D. sometimes distracting
E. showed originality
F. covered a wide range
G. not too technical

Aspects of Russ’s previous presentation
26. structure _______
27. eye contact _______
28. body language _______
29. choice of words _______
30. handouts _______

SECTION 4

Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Episodic memory

• The ability to recall details e.g. the time and (31) _______ of past events
• Different to semantic memory – the ability to remember general information about the (32) _______ which does not involve recalling (33) _______ information

Forming episodic memories involves three steps:
Encoding

• Involves receiving and processing information
• The more (34) _______ given to an event the more successfully it can be encoded
• To remember a (35) _______ it is useful to have a strategy for encoding such information

Storage

• Recent episodic memories are stored in the (36) _______
• More important long-term memories may eventually be transferred to the (37) _______

Retrieval

• More likely to remember events which are of emotional significance
• The (38) _______ in particular helps us to lay down memories of this type
• Retrieval of information from episodic memory can be improved through the use of (39) _______

Problems associated with episodic memory

• People with (40) _______ have difficulty with episodic memory, even though their semantic memory is often unaffected

SECTION 1

Questions 1–10

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

Moving to Banford City

Linda recommends living in suburb of: Dalton

Accommodation

• Average rent: (1) £ _______ a month

Transport

• Linda travels to work by (2) _______
  
• Limited (3) _______ in city centre
  
• Trains to London every (4) _______ minutes
  
• Poor train service at (5) _______
  

Advantages of living in Banford

• New (6) _______ opened recently
  
• (7) _______ has excellent reputation
  
• Good (8) _______ on Bridge Street

Meet Linda

• Meet Linda on (9) _______ after 5.30 pm
  
• In the (10) _______ opposite the station

SECTION 2

Questions 11–16

What advantages does the speaker mention for each of the following physical activities?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter A–G next to questions 11–16.

Advantages
A. not dependent on season
B. enjoyable
C. low risk of injury
D. fitness level unimportant
E. sociable
F. fast results
G. motivating

Physical Activities

11 using a gym ______

12 running _______

13 swimming _______

14 cycling _______

15 doing yoga _______

16 training with a personal trainer _______

Questions 17 and 18

Choose TWO letters A–E.

For which TWO reasons does the speaker say people give up going to the gym?

A. lack of time
B. loss of confidence
C. too much effort required
D. high costs
E. feeling less successful than others

Questions 19 and 20

Choose TWO letters A–E.

Which TWO pieces of advice does the speaker give for setting goals?

A. write goals down
B. have achievable aims
C. set a time limit
D. give yourself rewards
E. challenge yourself

SECTION 3

Questions 21–24

Choose the correct letter A, B, or C.

Project on using natural dyes to colour fabrics

21 What first inspired Jim to choose this project?

A textiles displayed in an exhibition

B a book about a botanic garden

C carpets he saw on holiday

23 Jim eventually decided to do a practical investigation which involved

A using a range of dyes with different fibres

B applying different dyes to one type of fibre

C testing one dye and a range of fibres

24 When doing his experiments Jim was surprised by

A how much natural material was needed to make the dye

B the fact that dyes were widely available on the internet

C the time that he had to leave the fabric in the dye

25 What problem did Jim have with using tartrazine as a fabric dye?

A it caused a slight allergic reaction

B it was not a permanent dye on cotton

C it was ineffective when used on nylon

Questions 25–30

What problem is identified with each of the following natural dyes?

Choose SIX answers from the options below and write the correct letter A–H next to questions 25–30.

Problems:
A. it is expensive
B. the color is too strong
C. the color is not long lasting
D. it is very poisonous
E. it can damage the fabric
F. the color may be unexpected
G. it is unsuitable for some fabrics
H. it is not generally available

Natural dyes:
25. Turmeric _______
26. Beetroot _______
27. Tyrian purple _______
28. Logwood _______

SECTION 4

Questions 31–40

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

The sleepy lizard (tiliqua rugose)

Description

• They are common in western and south Australia
  
• They are brown but recognisable by their blue (31) _______
  
• They are relatively large
  
• Their diet consists mainly of (32) _______
  
• Their main predators are large birds and (33) _______

Navigation study

• One study found that lizards can use the (34) _______ to help them navigate

Observations in the wild

• Observations show that these lizards keep the same (35) _______ for several years

What people want

• Possible reasons:
  
  • To improve the survival of their young (but little (36) _______ has been noted between parents and children)
  • To provide (37) _______ for female lizards

Tracking study

• A study was carried out using GPS systems attached to the (38) _______ of the lizards
• This provided information on the lizards’ location and even the number of (39) _______ taken
• It appeared that the lizards were trying to avoid one another
• This may be in order to reduce chances of (40) _______

SECTION 1

Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER.

Alex’s Training
Alex completed his training in 2014

About the applicant:

• At first Alex did his training in the (1) ______ department
  
• Alex did not have a qualification from school in (2) ______
  
• Alex thinks he should have done the diploma in (3) ______ skills
  
• Age of other trainees: the youngest was (4) ______
  

Benefits of doing training at JPNW:

• Lots of opportunities because of the size of the organization
  
• Trainees receive the same amount of (5) ______ as permanent staff
  
• The training experience increases people’s confidence a lot
  
• Trainees go to (6) ______ one day per month
  
• The company is in a convenient (7) ______

Advice for interview:

• Do not wear (8) ______
  
• Do not be (9) ______
  
• Make sure you (10) ______

SECTION 2

Questions 11-16
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

The Snow Centre
11. Annie recommends that when cross-country skiing, the visitors should
☐ A get away from the regular trails.
☐ B stop to enjoy views of the scenery.
☐ C go at a slow speed at the beginning.

12. What does Annie tell the group about this afternoon’s dog-sled trip?
    ☐ A Those who want to can take part in a race.
    ☐ B Anyone has the chance to drive a team of dogs.
    ☐ C One group member will be chosen to lead the trail.
13. What does Annie say about the team relay event?
    ☐ A All participants receive a medal.
    ☐ B The course is 4 km long.
    ☐ C Each team is led by a teacher.
14. On the snow-shoe trip, the visitors will
    ☐ A visit an old gold mine.
    ☐ B learn about unusual flowers.
    ☐ C climb to the top of a mountain.
15. The cost of accommodation in the mountain hut includes
    ☐ A a supply of drinking water.
    ☐ B transport of visitors’ luggage.
    ☐ C cooked meals.
16. If there is a storm while the visitors are in the hut, they should
    A contact the bus driver.
    B wait until the weather improves.
    C use the emergency locator beacon.

Questions 17-20
What information does Annie give about skiing on each of the following mountain trails?

Choose FOUR answers from the options below and write the correct letter A-F next to questions 17-20.

Information
A it has a good place to stop and rest
B it is suitable for all abilities
C it involves crossing a river
D it demands a lot of skill
E it may be closed in bad weather
F it has some very narrow sections

Mountain trails
17. Highland trail ______
18. Pine trail ______
19. Stony trail ______
20. Loser’s trail ______

SECTION 3

Questions 21-26
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

Labels giving nutritional information on food packaging

21. What was Jack’s attitude to nutritional food labels before this project?
    A He didn’t read everything on them.
    B He didn’t think they were important.
    C He thought they were too complicated.
22. Alice says that before doing this project.
    A she was unaware of what certain foods contained.
    B she was too lazy to read food labels.
    C she was only interested in the number of calories.
23. When discussing supermarket brands of pizza, Jack agrees with Alice that
    A the list of ingredients is shocking.
    B he will hesitate before buying pizza again.
    C the nutritional label is misleading.
24. Jack prefers the daily value system to other labelling systems because it is
    A more accessible.
    B more logical.
    C more comprehensive.
25. What surprised both students about one flavour of crisps?
    A The percentage of artificial additives given was incorrect.
    B The products did not contain any meat.
    C The labels did not list all the ingredients.
26. What do the students think about research into the impact of nutritional food labelling?
    A It did not produce clear results.
    B It focused on the wrong people.
    C It made unrealistic recommendations.

Questions 29 and 30
Choose TWO letters A-E.

Which TWO things are true about the participants in the study on the traffic-light system?

A They had low literacy levels.
B They were regular consumers of packaged food.
C They were selected randomly.
D They were from all socio-economic groups.
E They were interviewed face-to-face.

SECTION 4

Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

The history of coffee

Coffee in the Arab world

• There was small-scale trade in wild coffee from Ethiopia.
• 1522: Coffee was approved in the Ottoman court as a type of medicine.
• 1623: In Constantinople, the ruler ordered the (31) ______ of every coffee house.

Coffee arrives in Europe (17th century)

• Coffee shops were compared to (32) ______
• They played an important part in social and (33) ______ changes.

Coffee and European colonisation

• European powers established coffee plantations in their colonies
  
• Types of coffee were often named according to the (34) ______ they came from.
  
• In Brazil and the Caribbean, most cultivation depended on (35) ______
  
• In Java, coffee was used as a form of (36) ______
  
• Coffee became almost as important as (37) ______
  
• The move towards the consumption of (38) ______ in Britain did not also take place in the USA.

Coffee in the 19th century

• Prices dropped because of improvements in (39) ______
  
• Industrial workers found coffee helped them to work at (40) ______

SECTION 1

Questions 1-7

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

University Geography Field Trip
Time: next week

Destination: the Warrangamba dam and (1) __________

Matching course: Environmental science

Departing time of coach: at (2) __________ next Monday

Length of journey there: (3) __________ roughly and three hours back

First day’s activity: (4) __________

Spending the night: in (5) __________

Meals provided: in the form of (6) __________

Sydney’s daily water consumption: equal to water to fill (7) __________ full size Olympic swimming pools

Second day’s activity: go to the water plant to see how to purify the water for drinking

Questions 8-10
Choose THREE letters A-F.

Which THREE things does Cesar recommend bringing?
A binoculars
B camera
C penknife
D map
E raincoat
F mobile phone

SECTION 2

Questions 11-15

Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

11. The last programme in the present series is __________
12. Miss Patty Ching has been rewarded as ‘Consumer of __________’ for her persistent effort to see
13. She took __________ of photographs on her tour in Europe.
14. What happened to her photos after she gave them to Top-class photo services for developing? __________
15. The photo services compensated her __________ for the loss in the end.

Questions 16-20

Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

16. What is the problem that many listeners write about?
    A sale prices
    B bad quality stuff
    C faulty goods
    D bad assistant
17. How much was the sale price of the belt that Mr. Alvin liked?
    A $200
    B $100
    C $150
    D $300
18. Why should the consumer make a complaint about bad articles or service?
    A to cause a fuss
    B it won’t do what is claimed for
    C ask the shopkeeper for a favour
    D the shopkeeper should be responsible for it
19. What should a consumer do when complaining in person?
    A get a receipt for what you buy
    B speak to someone in authority
    C talk directly to the assistant
    D ask to see the seller
20. What should a customer do when complaining on the phone?
    A speak directly to the owner
    B ask for the manager
    C write a complaining lette
    D find out with whom you discuss the matter

SECTION 3

Questions 21 and 22

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/ OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Student record card

• Name: David Simons
• Address: 15 Market Ave. Hornsby
• Student number: (21) __________
• Prerequisites completed
• Screen studies course: YES
• 18 credit points: NO
• If no, reasons: (22) __________

Question 23

Complete the notes below. Write TWO DATES for the answer.

23. The final date of the examination should be __________

Questions 24 and 25

Choose the correct letter A-D.

24. Dr. Richardson explains that the set exercises
    A required reference to a wide range of resources
    B should be at least 250 words in length
    C focus on key terms and concepts in media studies
    D do not have answers
25. Dr. Richardson explains that essays 1 and 2
    A are to be the same length
    B should both be analytical
    C both emphasise studies of audiences
    D should be especially easy for David

Questions 26-28

Complete the table by writing ONE or TWO appropriate letters (M, T, A or J) as explained below.

Mechanical M
Theoretical T
Analytical A
Journalistic J

How does Dr. Richardson describe each of the following?

Assignments Description

• Set exercises (26) _______
• Assignment 1 (27) _______
• Assignment 2 A
• Assignment 3 (28) _______

Question 29

Choose the correct answer.

Which two time slots does Dr. Richardson suggest David use for his essay?
A six o’clock and midmorning
B breakfast and six o’clock
C midmorning and midnight
D midday and ten o’clock

Question 30

Answer the question below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for the answer.

What will David do before he decided which part of the programmes to use?

SECTION 4

Question 31

Choose the correct letter A-C.

What does John Upton compare a computer virus to?
A. a biological organism
B. a corrupt programme
C. an irritating person

Questions 32-35

Complete the flow chart. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

History of computer viruses

• In 1949 (32) ________ of virus was presented by John Neumann, an addicted computer fan.
• (33) ________ game was developed by a group of Americans for (34) ________ on computers.
• Development of a new (35) ________ in the 1980s.
• Birth of computer virus

Question 36

Choose the correct letter A-C.

36. What does the speaker find surprising?
    A. the rise in the number of software infections
    B. the determination of those who develop viruses
    C. the fact that people blame their own computers

Questions 37-40

List FOUR ways of combating viruses. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

(37) ________
(38) ________
(39) ________
(40) ________